i have an SEM model in which a predictor variable and an outcome variable are completely uncorrelated, yet in the model, the predictor variable is significantly related to the outcome. i understand the base correlations do not take into account all other variables in my model, but how do i explain why this relationship exists? Also, given that the relationship between predictor and outcome emerges in the SEM, can i also interpret any significant mediated effects?
Please send inputs, data, outputs, and license number to firstname.lastname@example.org. Send an output that show the sample statistics where the correlation is zero and and the output showing the two variables used in a model where their correlation is not zero.