Anonymous posted on Thursday, April 14, 2005 - 8:19 am
Hi, I have several times encountered the misgiving, or argument, that the results of LGM may reflect regression toward mean and, due to this, I should be caution to make any interpretations of my LGM analyses. I am a little bit hesitant to believe that this would be the case. However, I do not, thus far, have knowledge enough to argue against or for.
In one article, it was said that regression to the mean is a general misinterpreation regarding the relationships among growth parameters. However, because I did not find any clear explanations for this argument (and I am not statistician), I would like to learn more about the issue. I would be glad to hear any discussion (and related statistical facts) on the topic. Thank yo again!
BMuthen posted on Friday, April 15, 2005 - 1:51 am
Perhaps you want to take a look at writings by David Rogosa related to this.