CFA mixture 1-class/baseline model PreviousNext
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 Doug Snee posted on Thursday, April 22, 2010 - 11:44 pm
I thought I posted this before, but it doesn't seem to have made it -- sorry if it gets through twice.

This is a basic question, but I haven't read the answer anywhere.

I'm running various mixture models, and my principle question is whether a 1- or 2-class model is best. It's easy enough to do the standard mixture analyses and get the BIC, AIC, etc. with two or more classes, but how does one get this information for the 1-class model?

I seem to have made it work by just doing the usual mixture model, but putting

classes = c(1);

in the appropriate place, and only including an %OVERALL% portion for the analysis. But is this right?
 Linda K. Muthen posted on Friday, April 23, 2010 - 12:18 pm
The way you did it is correct.
 Doug Snee posted on Friday, April 23, 2010 - 4:25 pm
Thanks!
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