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Mplus Discussion > Growth Modeling of Longitudinal Data >
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 JM posted on Sunday, February 05, 2012 - 10:58 am
Hi, I am doing a parallel process LGM and calculate a conditional effects model to better understand the effect of my IV on the slope of the DV. I used the formula outlined by Curran, Bauer, and WIlloughby using the mean +/- one standard deviation of the initial intercept mean (provides me with low, mean, and high levels of the intercept). The trend of the DV is negative over time; however, none of the conditional effect lines in the graph I create are going down? How can this be when the overall sample trend is negative?
 Linda K. Muthen posted on Monday, February 06, 2012 - 2:14 pm
In the regression of s on i, what are the intercept and regression slope? What are the mean and variance of i?
 JM posted on Thursday, February 09, 2012 - 6:23 am
intercept is depression score and slope is substance use change. The mean of depression I is 8.53, variance 17.6 and the slope of substance is -0.214, variance 1.7.
 Linda K. Muthen posted on Saturday, February 11, 2012 - 4:46 pm
Please send the output and your license number to support@statmodel.com.
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