THREELEVEL ICCs with BAYES and catego... PreviousNext
Mplus Discussion > Multilevel Data/Complex Sample >
Message/Author
 Jonathon Little posted on Tuesday, August 16, 2016 - 12:36 pm
For a categorical (ordinal) variable, TYPE=THREELEVEL and Bayesian estimation is it correct to say that the within-level residual variance of a variable is 1? Much like the probit case.

I'm interested in estimating the Level 3 ICC as:

(Level 3 var)/(LEVEL 2 var + LEVEL 3 var +1)

Is this correct?
 Bengt O. Muthen posted on Tuesday, August 16, 2016 - 5:49 pm
Yes.
Back to top
Add Your Message Here
Post:
Username: Posting Information:
This is a private posting area. Only registered users and moderators may post messages here.
Password:
Options: Enable HTML code in message
Automatically activate URLs in message
Action: