anonymous posted on Monday, February 20, 2006 - 7:27 am
I went through the discussions on StdYX and looked up the Mplus manual and have not been able to figure out how to interpret the intercept estimates in the StdYX column.
I ran a simple regression analysis using Ex3.1.dat. I regressed y1 on x1 and got the following results:
Est. S.E. Est./S.E. Std StdYX
Y1 ON X1 0.986 0.050 19.891 0.986 0.665
Intrcpts Y1 0.484 0.052 9.327 0.484 0.312
What does 0.312, the estimate of the intercept Y1 in the StdYX column denote? At first I thought the intercept would be equal to 0, as expected from a standardized regression equation (the Y1 on X1 for StdYX, 0.665, is a correlation estimate. I checked and it's not the mean of Y1 either (it's .4848). How would one interpret the estimate?
Also, how would one interpret the intercepts of the indicators in the StdYX column of CFA? My understanding is that they are from the NU vector, is it correct? At first I thought they would be zeros too.
Thank you for your help.
P.S. I posted this message once yesterday and I am not sure whether I did it correctly. Thank you.
bmuthen posted on Monday, February 20, 2006 - 6:45 pm
Standardizations are done to unit variance, not zero means. Therefore the intercept is not zero. The standardized intercept is simply the intercept divided by the model-estimated dependent variable standard deviation - so in the metric of a unit-variance dependent variable. Typically, we only care about standardized slopes.
anonymous posted on Thursday, February 23, 2006 - 8:24 am