Emily Read posted on Wednesday, March 23, 2016 - 7:19 am
I am a PhD student with a couple of questions about indirect effects.
1. Why would a total indirect effect be significant if none of the specific indirect effects are significant? Would it make sense that the indirect effect of variable x on variable y is through the sum of all the mediation paths?
2. For standardized indirect effects, why would smaller specific indirect effects be significant while larger one are not? This doesn’t seem logical.