2nd-order vs 1st-order with correlate... PreviousNext
Mplus Discussion > Multilevel Data/Complex Sample >
 Alice  posted on Tuesday, October 20, 2015 - 6:37 am
I need a conceptual understanding of how the below two models differ? The first model did not work in because it had almost correlation of 1 between f4 and f1. However, the second model worked.
Model1: f1<-i1-i10; f2<-i11-i20; f3<-i21-i30; f4<-f1-f3;
Model2: f1<-i1-i10; f2<-i11-i20; f3<-i21-i30; f1 WITH f2; f2 WITH f3; f1 WITH f3;
 Alice  posted on Tuesday, October 20, 2015 - 6:53 am
To add little more explanation, Model 1 and Model 2 gave the same chi-square statistics and same correlations/covariances among factors (f1~f3). However, model 1 gave warning message while model 2 just worked fine.
 Linda K. Muthen posted on Tuesday, October 20, 2015 - 10:41 am
Please send the two outputs and your license number to support@statmodel.com.
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